From: | Jones, Michael <M.A.Jones@liverpool.ac.uk> |
To: | 'Neil Foster' <Neil.Foster@newcastle.edu.au> |
Barbara Legate <blegate@legate.ca> | |
CC: | Andrew Tettenborn <A.M.Tettenborn@swansea.ac.uk> |
Marc Ramsay <marc.ramsay@acadiau.ca> | |
obligations@uwo.ca | |
Date: | 15/10/2010 13:55:28 UTC |
Subject: | RE: informed consent/neglience question |
Dear All,
The point has arisen in the Scottish case of Moyes
v Lothian Health Board [1990] 1 Med LR 463 at 467 (Court of Session, Outer
House). Lord Caplan accepted the pursuer's argument that failure to warn about
overall risk could establish causation where the risk that actually
materialised had been warned about:
"The
ordinary person who has to consider whether or not to have an operation is not
interested in the exact pathological genesis of the various complications which
can occur but rather in the nature and extent of the risk. The patient would
want to know what chance there was of the operation going wrong and if it did
what would happen. If we were to suppose a situation where an operation would
give rise to a one per cent. risk of serious complication in the ordinary case
but where there could be four other special factors each adding a further one
per cent. to the risk, a patient to whom all five factors applied might have a
five per cent. risk rather than the one per cent. risk of the average person.
It is perfectly conceivable that a patient might be prepared to accept the risk
of one in 100 but not be prepared to face up to a risk of one in 20. If a
doctor contrary to established practice failed to warn the patient of the four
special risks but did warn the patient of the standard risk and then the
patient suffered complication caused physiologically by the standard risk
factor rather [than] by one or other of the four special risk factors I do not
think the doctor should escape the consequences of not having warned the
patient of the added risks which that patient was exposed to. A patient might
well with perfect reason consider that if there were five risk factors rather
than one then the chance of one or other of these factors materialising was
much greater. The coincidence that the damage which occurred was due to the
particular factor in respect of which a warning was given does not alter the
fact that the patient was not properly warned of the total risks inherent in
the operation and thus could not make an informed decision as to whether or not
to go through with it... If he had been given due warning he would not have
risked suffering adverse complication from that particular operation and the
fact that such complication occurred is causal connection enough to found a
claim against the doctor."
However, the pursuer failed on causation on
credibility as to whether she would have declined treatment if informed about
the risks, since she had said in evidence that she knew that general
anaesthetic posed a risk (which she was willing to accept), and she estimated
(wrongly) that this was about 5%, when the total risk from the procedure in
question (angiography) and the anaesthetic was much lower.
With
regard to Jane’s “scope of liability for consequences” point, presumably there
is scope for disagreement as to what the scope of liability for the
consequences should be in the case of a doctor failing to warn about risks of
treatment. If one accepts the argument of the majority in Chester v Afshar
that failure to warn is about respect for autonomy and leaving the power of
decision-making with the patient, then negligent non-disclosures which would
have affected the patient’s decision one way or the other (tipped the balance)
constitute the breach of autonomy. If the consequence that materialises is a
risk of the very procedure that would have been declined (even if that risk was
actually warned about) then the damage is the crystallisation of the
interference with the patient’s autonomy (i.e. the patient’s freedom to make
the informed choice). To me, that seems to fall within the “scope of liability
for consequences” that should apply following non-disclosure of
decision-critical information. If the injury that occurs was truly coincidental
(e.g. the operating table collapsed during the surgery causing injury to the
patient) then it would fall outside the scope of liability for the
consequences. I would equate the collapsing operating table with Lord
Hoffmann’s avalanche. Maybe this view depends on whether one thinks Chester
is correct [but I’m not suggesting that we start another thread discussing the
rights and wrongs of Chester, which I think has been done in the past].
Best
wishes,
Michael
------------------------------------------
Michael A. Jones
Professor of Common Law
Liverpool Law School
Chatham Street
Liverpool
L69 7ZS
Phone: 0151 794 2821
Fax: 0151 794 2829
------------------------------------------
From: Neil Foster
[mailto:Neil.Foster@newcastle.edu.au]
Sent: 15 October 2010 00:48
To: Barbara Legate
Cc: Andrew Tettenborn; Marc Ramsay; obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: Re: informed consent/neglience question
Dear Colleagues;
There is such a case in Australia recently, in fact. In
Wallace v Ramsay Health Care Ltd [2010] NSWSC 518
(9 July 2010) the plaintiff failed despite the failure of the doctor to warn of
a possible adverse outcome from an operation, because that particular outcome
did not eventuate. The plaintiff had argued that if he had been warned,
he would not have undergone the procedure, and hence would have avoided the
ultimate outcome (although this was not what he should have been warned about!)
The judge quoted Gummow J in Rosenberg v Percival [2001] HCA 18 at
[83]:
…a medical practitioner will not be held liable for
the failure to warn a patient of a material risk of damage to 'her laryngeal
nerve', if the injury that eventuated resulted from a misapplication of
anaesthetic. This is so despite the fact that the patient would not have had
the treatment and therefore would not have suffered the injury from the
misapplication of anaesthetic if the patient had been warned of the risk to
"her laryngeal nerve". This can be seen as an example of a situation
where the application of the 'but for' test would lead to an unacceptable
result.
In effect this seems to be an application
of the well-known example of the mountaineer given by Lord Hoffmann in Banque
Bruxelles Lambert SA v Eagle Star Insurance Co Ltd [1996]
UKHL 10; [1997] AC 191 at 213:
"A mountaineer about to undertake a difficult climb is concerned
about the fitness of his knee. He goes to a doctor who negligently makes a
superficial examination and pronounces the knee fit. The climber goes on the
expedition, which he would not have undertaken if the doctor had told him the
true state of his knee. He suffers an injury which is an entirely foreseeable
consequence of mountaineering but has nothing to do with his knee.
On the Court of Appeal's principle, the doctor is responsible for the injury
suffered by the mountaineer because it is damage which would not
have occurred if he had been given correct information about his knee. He would
not have gone on the expedition and would have suffered no injury. On what I
have suggested is the more usual principle, the doctor is not liable. The
injury has not been caused by the doctor's bad advice because it would have
occurred even if the advice had been correct."
Regards
Neil
On 15/10/2010, at 8:15 AM, Barbara Legate wrote:
I would say there is liability. The issue is on causation is
whether the patient would have undertaken the surgery if fully informed of the
risks. If the answer is no, the risk of partial paralysis being the tipping
point, then as a matter of a finding of fact, the surgery would not have
occurred and the loss would not have occurred. Similarly, if a patient should
hear of several risks, none of them terrible, but one of which would be his
tipping point – that is, it is one too many, can he only sue for the one that
tipped him over the edge, but none of the others?
I have looked at this before, and was unable to find any case that
said, bluntly, that the risk that was not warned of had to occur. I would be
interested in any case which does say that.
An interesting problem.
Barb Legate
From: Andrew
Tettenborn [mailto:A.M.Tettenborn@swansea.ac.uk]
Sent: October-14-10 10:54
AM
To: Marc Ramsay
Cc: obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: Re: informed
consent/neglience question
On 14/10/2010 15:33,
Marc Ramsay wrote:
I have a
question about the Reibl v. Hughes test regarding disclosure of material facts.
Suppose the following.
A patient consents to a surgical procedure.
A given risk, let's a 5 percent chance of partial paralysis, is determined to
be a material risk, and that risk is not disclosed. The physician doesn't
discuss this risk at all. There are no other problems with the quality of the
patient's consent.
The procedure is performed competently, but the patient suffers serious
injury. However, the injury is not a matter of the relevant risk
materializing.
The patient's loss concerns another risk which,
1) the patient was informed of (perhaps even signed a waiver regarding), or
2) an unforeseeable or previously unknown risk that the physician cannot been
have expected to know about or disclose (perhaps the patient suffers hearing
loss or loss of sight).
Is it appropriate to the proceed to the causation question in either of these
cases (what a reasonable patient would have chosen in the circumstances), or
are these kinds of losses to be treated as outside the scope of the physician's
wrongdoing?
Thanks,
Marc Ramsay
Acadia University
There shouldn't be liability here. But the real issue is
one of adventitious causation. And there are plenty of examples stating that
it's not necessarily enough to show (1) a wrong by D, and (2) harm to P that
technically wouldn't have happened but for that wrong. Two below:
A. I drive the wrong way down a one-way street. Despite my exemplary look-out,
a valuable Persian cat runs in front of my car and gets squished. I don't think
I can be liable for the loss of the cat, even though it wouldn't have been
killed had I not (negligently) driven down the one-way street (since I would
have been somewhere else). The maritime decision in The Estrella [1977] 1
Lloyds Rep 525 has something of this about it.
B. The shipping case of The Empire Jamaica. [1957] AC 386. Shipowners show
personal fault in appointing a technically uncertificated officer. As a result
of other negligence by the officer, nothing to do with the lack of the
certificate, there is a casualty. Is the casualty due to the actual fault or
privity of the shipowners (on the basis that it wouldn't have happened if the
owners had done as they should and not appointed the officer)? No.
Best to all
Andrew
--
School of Law, University of Swansea |
Andrew
Tettenborn Ysgol y Gyfraith,
Prifysgol Abertawe |
Lawyer (n): One versed in circumvention of the law (Ambrose Bierce)
Neil Foster
Senior Lecturer, LLB Program Convenor,
Newcastle Law School Faculty of Business & Law
MC158, McMullin Building
University of Newcastle Callaghan NSW 2308 AUSTRALIA
ph 02 4921 7430 fax 02 4921 6931